I'll be honest and say that I don't know much about politics, so I'm just asking here - but hasn't the constitution had ammendments to it? Presumably that means that when an old law/right is out-dated, it is brought up to the modern day - right? How long can you stand behind something which is already 200 years old, and thus written in a very different time.

Do you believe that it would have been written exactly the same way given the way we live today?